Re: Inclusive or exclusive?
|From:||Christopher Bates <chris.maths_student@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, March 20, 2007, 18:32|
Isaac Penzev wrote:
> Hi ppl,
> I want to ask for your advice. I'll be brief.
> If a language makes personal pronouns plural by adding a plural suffix to
> singular stems, like _gan_ 'thou' > _gan.tay_ 'you (pl)', and has
> inclusive/exclusive distinction in 1pl, would _nan.tay_ (< _nan_ 'I') mean
> 'we (incl)' or 'we (excl)'? Its counterpart would be smth like _tan_ (that
> is, similar to the sn stem).
> -- Yitzik
>IIRC, normally if one of a set of two inclusive/exclusive pronouns is
formed from the 1st person singular + plural affix, it's the exclusive.
So if you want to conform with statistical universals nan.tay would mean