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Re: Inclusive or exclusive?

From:Christopher Bates <chris.maths_student@...>
Date:Tuesday, March 20, 2007, 18:32
Isaac Penzev wrote:
> Hi ppl, > > I want to ask for your advice. I'll be brief. > > If a language makes personal pronouns plural by adding a plural suffix to > singular stems, like _gan_ 'thou' > _gan.tay_ 'you (pl)', and has > inclusive/exclusive distinction in 1pl, would _nan.tay_ (< _nan_ 'I') mean > 'we (incl)' or 'we (excl)'? Its counterpart would be smth like _tan_ (that > is, similar to the sn stem). > > Friendly > -- Yitzik > >
IIRC, normally if one of a set of two inclusive/exclusive pronouns is formed from the 1st person singular + plural affix, it's the exclusive. So if you want to conform with statistical universals nan.tay would mean "we (excl)".