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Re: Scots.

From:Eric Christopherson <rakko@...>
Date:Saturday, July 19, 2008, 6:25
On Jul 18, 2008, at 10:51 PM, ROGER MILLS wrote:

> Eldin Raigmore wrote: >> >> It sounds like it's used where some older English (such as King >> James's Bible >> English) used "sore"; and where German uses "sehr" (and seems to be >> pronounced a lot like German's "sehr".) > > Yes, sounds reasonable. In the KJV certainly-- In Luke's story of > the Nativity, the shepherds are "sore afraid". "Sore afflicted" > also occurs (Psalms?? or maybe in the Anglican Book of Common > Prayer). I'm sure I've said on occasion "I'm sorely tempted > to....." and "XXX is sorely needed", but never without the -ly ending.
Is the word <sore(ly)> meaning "very" the same word as the word <sore> having to do with pain? I've always perceived it to be -- since the kinds of adjectives normally used for <sore> are ones where you can easily imagine a semantic shift from "so much that one feels pain" to just "much" -- but now that I hear that it's related to German <sehr> I wonder. Does/did <sehr> (or related words) also have shades of meaning having to do with pain?