Re: Scots.
| From: | Eric Christopherson <rakko@...> |
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| Date: | Saturday, July 19, 2008, 6:25 |
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On Jul 18, 2008, at 10:51 PM, ROGER MILLS wrote:
> Eldin Raigmore wrote:
>>
>> It sounds like it's used where some older English (such as King
>> James's Bible
>> English) used "sore"; and where German uses "sehr" (and seems to be
>> pronounced a lot like German's "sehr".)
>
> Yes, sounds reasonable. In the KJV certainly-- In Luke's story of
> the Nativity, the shepherds are "sore afraid". "Sore afflicted"
> also occurs (Psalms?? or maybe in the Anglican Book of Common
> Prayer). I'm sure I've said on occasion "I'm sorely tempted
> to....." and "XXX is sorely needed", but never without the -ly ending.
Is the word <sore(ly)> meaning "very" the same word as the word
<sore> having to do with pain? I've always perceived it to be --
since the kinds of adjectives normally used for <sore> are ones where
you can easily imagine a semantic shift from "so much that one feels
pain" to just "much" -- but now that I hear that it's related to
German <sehr> I wonder. Does/did <sehr> (or related words) also have
shades of meaning having to do with pain?