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Re: ontology of glottalized segments?

From:Dirk Elzinga <dirk_elzinga@...>
Date:Wednesday, August 11, 2004, 21:29
On Aug 11, 2004, at 12:00 AM, Thomas R. Wier wrote:

> Hi all. > > Does anyone know any phonetic or phonological facts about how > glottalized consonants arise? I've heard that acoustically they > sometimes are treated as "hypervoiceless". I'm trying to come > up with a way for them to arise naturally in Phaleran historical > phonology without having to make reference to borrowings from > C'ali, which, of course, has plenty of them, and would thus be too > easy. > > (Dirk, do you know?)
I don't. Paul already mentioned the only bits that I'm familiar with, namely the Sindhi implosives which are the result of "hypervoicing" (you actually get a reversal of airflow if you hold a voiced stop long enough -- hence, an implosive). I don't know how a language would develop a glottalized series from something else, but here's a thought. In some varieties of English (no, I'm not starting YAEPT), syllable final stops are pre-glottalized: [k_h&?t] 'cat'. In allegro speech, the supralaryngeal gesture may be absent altogether, giving [k_h&?]. If there were a following morph which began with a voiceless stop, it doesn't seem too far-fetched to attach the constricted glottis gesture to the stop and get a glottalized consonant. I'm emphatically *not* saying this happens in English. But in a parallel universe, English' (English-prime) might develop this feature. Dirk -- Dirk Elzinga Dirk_Elzinga@byu.edu "Speech is human, silence is divine, yet also brutish and dead; therefore we must learn both arts." - Thomas Carlyle

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And Rosta <a.rosta@...>YAEPT: Re: Re: ontology of glottalized segments?