Re: Spanish /h/
From: | Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, December 14, 2004, 9:01 |
Isaac Penzev wrote:
> B. Garcia wrote:
>
>
>>Philippines Spanish retained the pronunciation of /h/ for |h|
>>(originating from /f/).
>
>
> I would appreciate if somebody could specify other Spanish dialects that do
> the same. I need it for bringing my Arabo-Romance project "Ajami" closer to
> reality. For now it retains most of original /f/s as /h^/ [X].
This IMHO is very unrealistic. Mozarabic AFAIK kept /f/, but if
you implement the /f/ > /h/ change it is very unlikely that it
would become /X/. Any voiceless fricative can in principle be
de-buccalized (un-mouthed) to [h], but for [h] to become [X]
takes some kind of error in transmission, like when English
speakers that lacked [x] heard others' [x] as [f] in _laugh_
etc. (BTW I heard the reverse exists in Slavic dialects, with
/f/ becoming /Xv\/...)
--
/BP 8^)>
--
Benct Philip Jonsson -- melroch at melroch dot se
Solitudinem faciunt pacem appellant!
(Tacitus)
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