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Re: latin verb examples and tense meanings

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Sunday, January 16, 2000, 16:33
On Sun, 16 Jan 2000 09:17:07 -0000 Fabian <rhialto@...> writes:
> Latin had no passive of 'to be', or at least, my references make no > reference to it. It is a logical impossibility anyway, I think.
. Well, Hebrew found a way to do it :-) .
> Maltese, a language in many ways in a similar position to hebrew, > has two > verbs for become, safagh (SFGh) and sar (SJR), although the second > more > properly means to grow/ripen. Do these have an analogue in Hebrew? > Maybe you could use one of these. > > --- > Fabian
. That brings up another problem.....since Ju:dajca is a Romance language influenced by Semitic languages, the opposite of Maltese, how to absorb Semitic verbs? I know that in Ladino the verb _lamdar_ "to learn" was used, translating the simple-paradigm form of LMD into an "-ar" verb with a pattern CaCCar, but i'm not sure how that came about, since in Yiddish and "Judeo-English" almost all Hebrew verbs are made with a "to be" construction using the present tense form of the verb. SFGh and SJR probably are cognates of Hebrew ShP3 "abundance" and SYR (S2R) "remain". -Stephen (Steg) "Eze-guvdhab wa'hrikh-a tze, / "zhoutzii wa'esh," i eze-mwe."