Re: latin verb examples and tense meanings

On Sun, 16 Jan 2000 09:17:07 -0000 Fabian <rhialto@...> writes:
> Latin had no passive of 'to be', or at least, my references make no
> reference to it. It is a logical impossibility anyway, I think.
.

Well, Hebrew found a way to do it :-) .

> Maltese, a language in many ways in a similar position to hebrew,
> has two
> verbs for become, safagh (SFGh) and sar (SJR), although the second
> more
> properly means to grow/ripen. Do these have an analogue in Hebrew?
> Maybe you could use one of these.
>
> ---
> Fabian
.

That brings up another problem.....since Ju:dajca is a Romance language
influenced by Semitic languages, the opposite of Maltese, how to absorb
Semitic verbs?  I know that in Ladino the verb _lamdar_ "to learn" was
used, translating the simple-paradigm form of  LMD into an "-ar" verb
with a pattern CaCCar, but i'm not sure how that came about, since in
Yiddish and "Judeo-English" almost all Hebrew verbs are made with a "to
be" construction using the present tense form of the verb.

SFGh and SJR probably are cognates of Hebrew ShP3 "abundance" and SYR
(S2R) "remain".


-Stephen (Steg)
 "Eze-guvdhab wa'hrikh-a tze, / "zhoutzii wa'esh," i eze-mwe."