Re: latin verb examples and tense meanings
From: | Fabian <rhialto@...> |
Date: | Sunday, January 16, 2000, 9:17 |
> At 6:48 pm -0500 15/1/00, Steg Belsky wrote:
> [...]
> >
> >When i found out that Latin had a passive paradigm, i was looking
> >forwards to finding out the passive forms of "to be" so that i could use
> >them for the verb "to become" in Jsdajca, the way Hebrew does.
> >Do you think it would be possible for an entire paradigm to be made up
> >without a previous record of its use? In Semitic languages it doesn't
> >seem that hard, i do it a lot myself :-). but in a Romance language i
> >don't know how flexible it would be.
Latin had no passive of 'to be', or at least, my references make no
reference to it. It is a logical impossibility anyway, I think.
> But Jsdajca is rather different in that IIRC it has retained forms derived
> from Latin passive under the influence of its Semitic substrate
> (superstrate?). I suppose if the Semitic influence had been strong enough
> to do this then the extension of the passive to 'to be' in the Hebrew
> manner cannot be ruled out.
Maltese, a language in many ways in a similar position to hebrew, has two
verbs for become, safagh (SFGh) and sar (SJR), although the second more
properly means to grow/ripen. Do these have an analogue in Hebrew? Maybe you
could use one of these.
---
Fabian
Ikun li dik il-kitba tpatti it-tieba ta' qalb ta' patruni tieghi.
Ikun li ttaffi ugigh tal-Mitlufin u tal-Indannati.
Ikun li ilkoll li jaqraw il-kitba, qalbhom ihobbu is-Sewwa u l-Unur.
U b'dak l'ghamil, nithallas tax-xoghol iebes.