Charlie wrote:
The question
> for me now is: whence the -l- in madrileño?
That is a puzzlement......
>
> As indicator of the 2nd person singular (amas) it would be final.
> Latin plurals didn't end in -s, and so the accent for the -s plural
> would be treated by analogy.
>
> The "true" 2nd person plural is often forgotten when discussing this,
> amatis > amais. But "amais" has three syllables and so a written
> accent is necessary, amáis.
IIRC sometimes in Old Spanish texts one sees -Vdes for the 2pl.; even
Argentine "Martin Fierro" (mid-ish XIX C) uses a lot of dialect/"country"
forms, including "sodes" for _sois_ you-pl. are. (I wonder if the 2pl. is
also being phased out in Italian??? voi amate etc.)
>
> Charlie
>