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Re: What is an IE language (was: Re: Workshops Review from Yitzik the

From:Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
Date:Saturday, December 21, 2002, 1:10
En réponse à Joseph Fatula <fatula3@...>:

> > Maybe I'm mixed up here, but I seem to find that in Spanish, the word > order > is the same for questions as for statements, and that intonation makes > the > difference.
Maybe in Colloquial Spanish, but then it's true of French and English too! As there are no tone marks in Spanish writing, all of the
> questions are preceded with another question mark - which would make > sense > if the language uses the same order and no grammatical/lexical variation > for > questions. ¿This does make sense? >
Not in normal, even spoken Spanish. Inversion *is* definitely, along with intonation, a normal mark of interrogation. "¿Qué dijo el niño?" pregunta el abuelo, not *"¿Qué el niño dijo?". I don't think even in colloquial language you would hear that, and Spanish is *not a V2 language ;))) . Christophe. http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr Take your life as a movie: do not let anybody else play the leading role.

Replies

Joseph Fatula <fatula3@...>
Pablo David Flores <pablo-flores@...>