Re: What is an IE language (was: Re: Workshops Review from Yitzik the

En réponse à Joseph Fatula <fatula3@...>:

>
> Maybe I'm mixed up here, but I seem to find that in Spanish, the word
> order
> is the same for questions as for statements, and that intonation makes
> the
> difference.
Maybe in Colloquial Spanish, but then it's true of French and English too!

  As there are no tone marks in Spanish writing, all of the
> questions are preceded with another question mark - which would make
> sense
> if the language uses the same order and no grammatical/lexical variation
> for
> questions.  ¿This does make sense?
>
Not in normal, even spoken Spanish. Inversion *is* definitely, along with
intonation, a normal mark of interrogation. "¿Qué dijo el niño?" pregunta el
abuelo, not *"¿Qué el niño dijo?". I don't think even in colloquial language
you would hear that, and Spanish is *not a V2 language ;))) .

Christophe.

http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr

Take your life as a movie: do not let anybody else play the leading role.

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