Re: Paul Bennett's linguistic history (was Re: Schwa and [V]: Learning the IPA)

Tristan wrote:
> BTW: For Americans, is the flapped/tapped [4] as the allophone for /t/
> or /d/ the same as a Spanish /4/, or are they different?
I'm quite sure they're different, even though I don't speak Span. natively--
still,, once upon a time it was good enough that Hispanics would look
puzzled and ask where I came from, because I "didn't sound like an
American". I seem to  tap the Span. /r/ a little further back than my
American VtV (definitely alveolar), so the sound in "para" (post-alveolar?)
is way different from the sound in "potter" or "pot o' (gold)'; I don't do
flapped d, but doubt it would be any closer. Not sure how IPA/CXS would
distinguish the two. Using the American sound in Spanish gives a distinctly
"wrong" impression to me, though I don't know how hispanophones would react.

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