Re: THEORY: questions

Rachel Klippenstein wrote:
>
> Is there any sound that [h] is likely to change into?
Well, there are a number of /h/ -> /k/ changes in borrowings from
languages with /h/ to languages without, for example, Chinese _Han_ to
Japanese _Kan_ (altho, Japanese later developed an /h/ of its own, but
at the time of borrowing, there was no /h/), thus Mandarin Hanzi (Han
Latters) -> Japanese Kanji.  /?/ seems reasonable, too.

> And suppose a language loses its markers for noun
> plurality and verb past tense through a regular sound
> change.  How is a language likely to deal with that?
> Develop periphrastic constructions? Do without??
It could do either, it depends on whether the speakers feel that
distinction to be important.  It could also adapt another
already-existing form.  For example, suppose the language has a perfect
form.  If it lost the original past, the perfect could be changed into a
simple past form.  Modern Spoken French has done this, for example.  The
original simple past is rarely (never?) used in the spoken language.  I
think German, or at least some dialects, has also done that.  Altho, in
those cases it wasn't sound change that motivated it.

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