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Re: Case

From:Ed Heil <edheil@...>
Date:Monday, July 12, 1999, 21:36

Since cases essentially do the same work as pre/post-positions --
i.e. they dictate what relationship the noun has to the rest of the
sentence -- this sounds pretty reasonable.

There is in fact a theory that Indo-European case-endings are nothing
more than postpositions that got permanently fused onto the words -- a
situation the exact opposite of what would be happening in your

Ed Heil -------------------------------
"Facts are meaningless! You can use facts to prove anything
   that's even _remotely_ true!"           -- Homer Simpson

nicole wrote:

> OK, to respond to my own post, I may have come up with a solution to my > problem, tell me if this sounds normal/possible. (The problem was, that > I liked have all those cases, but it just got to be a pain). Would it > sound possible for a language with a very extensive case system to have > some but not all cases change into adpositions, which required a case > all their own? Say, for instance, all my local cases were to detach > from the noun and become postpositions (of course, in this case, my > prepositional case would be postpositional...but anyway), and when a > noun was used with a postposition it required a postpositional case, > which had zero ending? Maybe I can explain that better... All my other > cases have suffixes that mark them. If there was NO marking at all, > then that would be postpositional case (because no suffix was left on > the words after the local cases were detached) and all the postpositions > that the language used would be derived from those original local > cases. And maybe that would be one dialect of the language, while the > one with many cases would be a different dialect. The dialect with > cases might be literary, or more for the upper class, who are trying to > retain the way the language was in olden times. Does this sound > reasonable? > Sorry I explained it in such a roundabout way, but I couldn't help it. > > Nicole >