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Re: about semitic morphology

From:Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>
Date:Sunday, June 16, 2002, 6:21
On Sat, 15 Jun 2002 19:28:25 +0100 Tim May <butsuri@...>
> Balazs Sudar writes: > > Hi all! > > I have a question about the triconsonantal system. Do this > languages have an unchanging > > form for nouns, or are all different, only the three consonants > of an idea must be > > unchanged in different words? > > An example: > > the root for writing is: M G D for living D R B > > the noun "writing" is "megid" > > That means: > > should the noun for "loving" be "derib"???? Or there is no rule > that all same function words > > must have the same form?
> There are many people here who know more about semitac languages > than > I do, but yes, if they're both regular, the forms will be the same. > You might find this page about the Arabic verb interesting. > > Note, though, that it's my impression that most Semitic languages > have many irregular conjugations of roots.
- Also, different verbs can come from different paradigms (|binyanim| in Hebrew), which have different patterns. For instance, in Hebrew, the paradigm |pa`al|'s noun pattern is |C@Ci:Ca:|, while the noun pattern of the paradigm |pi`eil| is |CiC²u:C|. There are also irregular ones (or minor sub-patterns), like the noun form of the |pi`eil| verb BQSh isn't */biqqu:S/, but instead it's /baqqa:Sa:/. -Stephen (Steg) "aroo?"