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Re: about semitic morphology

From:Muke Tever <alrivera@...>
Date:Sunday, June 16, 2002, 8:58
From: "Balazs Sudar" <conlang@...>
> I have a question about the triconsonantal system. Do this languages have an
> form for nouns, or are all different, only the three consonants of an idea
must be
> unchanged in different words? > > An example: > > the root for writing is: M G D for living D R B > the noun "writing" is "megid" > That means: > should the noun for "loving" be "derib"???? Or there is no rule that all same
function words
> must have the same form?
I don't know how actual tricolangs do it, but if it were up to me the noun "writing" and the noun "loving" (or the noun "living", depending on which one was the typo) would derive differently, because they relate differently to their verbal meanings "write" and "live/love"--writing is more of a result, and loving/living more of a participle. So I would make: <megedma:> "writing" and <deirbn=t> "living/loving" (Unless "living" in the English sense of "job", which would be different entirely.)
> Other: > if nouns, adjectives, etc. are all verbs, how do you form a sentence: "Yes,
all six houses are
> built to be home of the famous major's friends." :)
Well, I imagine you'd use participles, generally. It's a little easier if you allow derivation, as if edwa:ka "to lead" could make duk-to:r "leader". You may consider this cheating, though. *Muke! --