Re: about semitic morphology
|From:||Muke Tever <alrivera@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, June 16, 2002, 8:58|
From: "Balazs Sudar" <conlang@...>
> I have a question about the triconsonantal system. Do this languages have anunchanging
> form for nouns, or are all different, only the three consonants of an ideamust be
> unchanged in different words?
> An example:
> the root for writing is: M G D for living D R B
> the noun "writing" is "megid"
> That means:
> should the noun for "loving" be "derib"???? Or there is no rule that all samefunction words
> must have the same form?
I don't know how actual tricolangs do it, but if it were up to me the noun
"writing" and the noun "loving" (or the noun "living", depending on which one
was the typo) would derive differently, because they relate differently to their
verbal meanings "write" and "live/love"--writing is more of a result, and
loving/living more of a participle.
So I would make: <megedma:> "writing" and <deirbn=t> "living/loving"
(Unless "living" in the English sense of "job", which would be different
> if nouns, adjectives, etc. are all verbs, how do you form a sentence: "Yes,all six houses are
> built to be home of the famous major's friends." :)
Well, I imagine you'd use participles, generally.
It's a little easier if you allow derivation, as if edwa:ka "to lead" could make
duk-to:r "leader". You may consider this cheating, though.