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Re: past tense imperative

From:René Uittenbogaard <ruittenb@...>
Date:Tuesday, April 19, 2005, 22:39
Roger Mills wrote:
> Max #1 wrote: > >>René Uittenbogaard wrote: >> >> >>>A couple of days ago, I was struck by an interesting grammatical >>>construction >>>in Dutch. Dutch has a construction in which an imperative can be used in >>>the past perfect: >>> >>>Had dat dan gezegd! - You should have told me so! >>>Was dan niet gegaan! - You shouldn't have gone! >>> > > What form are "had" and "was"? Subjunctives? (or whatever it's called in > Dutch).
They are definitely not subjunctives (those would have been "ware" and (apparently) "hadde" (although I never came across that last form before I looked it up)). Instead, they are identical to the past tense singular forms of the indicative (where 1st, 2nd and 3rd person are identical).
> As the Engl. translation suggests, these are more like > contrary-to-fact or optative sentences, IMO.
Exactly. ---- Ray Brown wrote:
> o, no - these are not _past_ imperatives - which doesn't make sense > (see below) - they are _perfect_ imperatives, i.e. imperatives in the > perfect aspect.
I didn't identify them correctly right away - sorry :-/
> What we have, it seems to me, is the use of imperatives of 'to have' > to 'to be' + perfect participle in expressing a desire or wish that > things had been different in the past. Dutch uses the imperative > mood, ancient Greek used a past tense of the indicative mood & Latin > a past tense of the subjunctive mood.
Cool! Thanks for pointing this out :) René

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Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>