Re: no:t@r pa:D@r iNkAjlA (with audio)
From: | Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> |
Date: | Sunday, September 1, 2002, 13:39 |
On Sun, 1 Sep 2002 08:06:28 -0400 Muke Tever <mktvr@...> writes:
> > BTW: In coelis? Why would heaven be plural? Is that to
> > distinguish
> > heaven from the sky?
> It is plural in the Greek: ou)ranoi=s
> I don't know why, but it may have become habitually plural, like L
> "tenebras".
> *Muke!
-
I remember someone saying something on here a while ago about the
Christian Bible's New Testament having been primarily written in Greek by
native Semitic-speakers, which may have influenced the syntax. In Hebrew
and Aramaic, "sky/heaven" (at least the most common word for them) is
grammatically plural (dual, actually): _shamayim_ (Ar.: _shemaya_). Like
"water" _mayim_, it has no singular form.
-Stephen (Steg)
"your whistling sounds like scary alien bees!"
~ why not to attempt tuvan throat-singing in public :-P