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Re: What are the Sampa representations for various |r|s?

From:Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Thursday, November 4, 2004, 18:53
On Thursday, November 4, 2004, at 03:27 , Sally Caves wrote:

> I'm posing the question under different cover, since I think many of you > are > tuning out some threads, or are distracted by recent disappointing events.
I've already answered most of this in another mail that I sent off before receiving this; so I repeat what I have already posted :) [snip]
> The front trilled "r," what a Welshman might say in pronouncing Ronabwy. > Is > that [R]?
No - it's [r]
> The voiceless front trilled "r," what a Welshman might say in pronouncing > "rhan." This is sometimes not actually a trill, so much as a "kind" of > palatal fricative, the sound you get when you limit the voiceless trill to > one "beat."
It depends on your analysis of the sound. If you think it is essentially devoicing of /r/ with the aspiration being a secondary feature, you would write [r_0]; if, like me, you consider that it is essentially an aspirated /r/ with the devoicing being a secondary feature you would write [r_h]. This has been debated many times over the years I have been on Conlang. Personally, I think [r_0] and [r_h] are basically the same thing - it's a matter of personal choice which feature you consider primary & which secondary. If it's just one beat, then we have a voiceless aspirated flap, i.e. [4_o] or [4_h]
> The voiced velar fricative. What a Frenchwoman would say when pronouncing > the word "rouge." Is that the one represented by [R]?
I've never heard a velar fricative used for this. IME it has always been a voiced uvular fricative or even uvular approximant. The voiced velar fricative which is normal for intervocalic /g/ in Spanish id [G]. The voiced uvular fricative/approximant is indeed [R]. ================================================
> The velar trill. [R\] What a uvularly athletic German of the "older > generation" ;) might say in pronouncing "geradeaus." I notice this sign > requires two characters. Does the backslash indicate that it is velar?
[R\] is the _uvular_ trill (IPA inverted upper-case R) No, the backslash has nothing to do with velarity, uvularity, trillness or anything else. It is merely a method of extending the use of ASCII characters. I quote from J.C. wells of the University of London (the guy responsible for X-SAMPA): "However no segmental role is currently defined for the backslash [in SAMPA]......I propose that we....bring the backslash into service as a kind of universal diacritic, meaning 'the preceding character is to be interpreted in a special way'. IPA alphabetic characters not yet assigned a SAMPA code can be given a two-place code, in which the second character is \." As far as I know, a velar trill is not a possibility. there is certainly no IPA symbol for it.
> The retroflex flap, a sound I think I invented, which a Teonivar would say > when pronouncing "Erahenahil" [paradise]. I've given two detailed > descriptions of that sound in a thread called "Usage: rhotics, etc." Is > it > invented or not?
I guess you did invent it for Teonaht, but sort of like re-inventing the wheel :) The sound does exist - the X-sampa & CXS is [r`]
> The alveolar flap (no retroflex), which is like the flapped Latin "r" but > articulated at the palate or post alveolar. What a Teonivar would say > when > pronouncing "yry firrimby" ("me all grateful," or "thank you.") > > Maybe Sampa can't cover all of these.
X-SAMPA and CXS can cover all that IPA covers. But you've got me stumped on this one. The flap or tap [4] (IPA "small Latin fish-hook r" [ɾ]) is given by IPA as dental/alveolar/postalveolar. You can specify it as dental in CXS thus [4_d]. But i don't know how you specify that it is postalveolar. Hopefully, someone can enlighten us. Ray =============================================== =============================================== Anything is possible in the fabulous Celtic twilight, which is not so much a twilight of the gods as of the reason." [JRRT, "English and Welsh" ]