Re: What are the Sampa representations for various |r|s?
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Thursday, November 4, 2004, 16:10 |
On Wed, Nov 03, 2004 at 10:27:13PM -0500, Sally Caves wrote:
> The retroflex "r." What I, an American, say in pronouncing "American."
It is unlikely that what you, as an American, say in pronouncing
"American", is retroflex. For most Americans it's [r\], which is an alveolar
approximant.
> The final retroflex "r." What I, an American, say in pronouncing "car." Is
> there much difference? I feel that there is a minute one, maybe not enough
> to count.
Well, there is no release in "car" (otherwise it would be something like
"ca-ruh"), and there is also the fact that the -r changes the sound of
the "a" (called "r-coloration" or "rhoticization"), and represented by a
` on the vowel: [ka`r\].
> The flapped "r." What a Latina might say in pronouncing her name "Sara."
[4]
> The front trilled "r," what a Welshman might say in pronouncing Ronabwy. Is
> that [R]?
Nope, that's [r]. It's the most common rhotic among the world's languages,
and therefore gets the unadorned symbol.
> The voiceless front trilled "r," what a Welshman might say in pronouncing
> "rhan." This is sometimes not actually a trill, so much as a "kind" of
> palatal fricative, the sound you get when you limit the voiceless trill to
> one "beat."
I don't know this sound. A voiceless version of [r] would be written [r_0]...
> The voiced velar fricative. What a Frenchwoman would say when pronouncing
> the word "rouge." Is that the one represented by [R]?
The voiced velar fricative is [G], which is not a rhotic. The
voiced *uvular* fricative is [R].
> The velar trill. [R\] What a uvularly athletic German of the "older
> generation" ;) might say in pronouncing "geradeaus." I notice this sign
> requires two characters. Does the backslash indicate that it is velar?
Again, uvular. The backslash doesn't have any regular meaning in CXS;
it's just a way of getting another symbol out of a letter. There are
lots of digraphs in CXS, just because ASCII doesn't have enough monographs.
> The retroflex flap, a sound I think I invented, which a Teonivar would say
> when pronouncing "Erahenahil" [paradise]. I've given two detailed
> descriptions of that sound in a thread called "Usage: rhotics, etc." Is it
> invented or not?
Sorry, no. It's a standard sound found in natlangs, especially on the
Indian subcontinent, and in CXS it's written [r`]. Note that unlike the
backslash, the ` does regularly mean "retroflex" in CXS.
> The alveolar flap (no retroflex), which is like the flapped Latin "r" but
> articulated at the palate or post alveolar. What a Teonivar would say when
> pronouncing "yry firrimby" ("me all grateful," or "thank you.")
The alveolar *lateral* flap is [l\], but for a non-lateral flaps, CXS has only
one symbol for dental, alveolar, and postalveolar: [4]. I think there
are diacritics you can use to distinguish, but I'm not familiar with how
they work.
-Marcos