Re: THEORY: USAGE/THEORY: Re: Case
From: | Raymond A. Brown <raybrown@...> |
Date: | Friday, July 16, 1999, 18:50 |
At 3:37 pm +0100 16/7/99, A Rosta wrote:
>Ray:
......
>>
>> "perlative" should mean 'pertaining to conveyance through to its
>> destination' (i.e. conveyance that actually gets there - like the
>'Poney
>> Express' IIRC :)
>
>I would call this "allative", though I forget the term I used to know
>for 'motion
>towards', as opposed to 'motion to'.
No, no. 'allative' should mean only motion towards. That does not imply
that one actually reaches one's goal!
"perlative" must, if it means anything, imply that the goal certainly has
been reached or will with absolutely certainly get reached.
>Quite possibly 'perlative' is a
>modern
>formation (I find neither perlat- nor perfer- in OED1). Does anyone have
>Trask's
>dictionary to hand? He tries to cite first usages, to a degree.
I though it had first been coined on this list about a week back :)
Ray.
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A mind which thinks at its own expense
will always interfere with language.
[J.G.Hamann - 1760]
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