| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Wednesday, January 21, 2004, 3:45 |
On Tue, Jan 20, 2004 at 07:24:26PM -0800, Gary Shannon wrote:> English "be" -> Mutlak "by" > English "by" -> Mutlak "biy"But you introduced <y> for /i/ without introducing <iy> for /aj/, so what happens in the intervening text when you run into the words "be" and "by"? The former becomes "by", but we don't have any rule for the latter, so it also stays "by". -Mark
| Gary Shannon <fiziwig@...> |