Re: Two meanings

Pablo David Flores wrote:


>
> Yes, but Borges was contrasting the non-Castilian, Rioplatense /s/
> (laminal) with the Italian /s/. I don't know how they differ. Judging
> by what can be heard on Italian TV, it's somewhat sharper (dental?).
> Maybe Borges was referring to the fact that Carlos Argentino Daneri
> pronounced his syllable-final /s/'s clearly, while the typical Rioplatense
> speaker either turns it into [h] or drops it entirely.
>
> At the time when Borges wrote, the reference to the "Italian S" was
> probably understood by many, given the vast quantities of first-generation
> Italian immigrants living in Argentina.
>
Glad to see you.  I was just thinking, where is PF when we need him?
Another possibility:  when Borges was writing, perhaps Rioplatense /s/ was
still apical? Or was at least, amongst upper class speakers? Is Carlos
Argentino Daneri possibly of Italian descent? I don't recall that being
mentioned, but it might be one more reason for the narrator's scorn........

I was wondering about the other refs. at the bottom of the web page Tristan
gave us-- in particular "Luis Briceno y Confuerde de los Juemos: A look
back".  It certainly _could_ be a Borgesian title, but I don't recognize it.
Is LByCdlJ a real person??