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Re: "Abilitative" aspect?

From:Tim May <butsuri@...>
Date:Friday, October 25, 2002, 1:37
Ian Maxwell writes:
 > Muke Tever wrote:
 >
 > > Of course, you could have a permissive as its own mood, but then
 > > you could also have it as a causative on an abilitive verb,
 > > couldntcha...
 >
 > Hunh. Something that would literally translate as "to be allowed to
 > be able to run" would actually mean "to cause to run", then? I
 > don't see the logic, but then since when are natlangs (and, by
 > extension, artlangs) logical?
 >

I think he means "be caused to be able to run" for "be allowed to run",
or something similar.  That's how I read it, anyway.

Reply

Ian Maxwell <umlaut@...>