Re: "Abilitative" aspect?
From: | Tim May <butsuri@...> |
Date: | Friday, October 25, 2002, 1:37 |
Ian Maxwell writes:
> Muke Tever wrote:
>
> > Of course, you could have a permissive as its own mood, but then
> > you could also have it as a causative on an abilitive verb,
> > couldntcha...
>
> Hunh. Something that would literally translate as "to be allowed to
> be able to run" would actually mean "to cause to run", then? I
> don't see the logic, but then since when are natlangs (and, by
> extension, artlangs) logical?
>
I think he means "be caused to be able to run" for "be allowed to run",
or something similar. That's how I read it, anyway.
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