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Re: Reflexive (was Re: Help on Verbs...)

From:FFlores <fflores@...>
Date:Wednesday, October 27, 1999, 13:08
Theodore Kloba <ted.kloba@...> wrote:

> It does seem that reflexive and middle voice are very similar. I think=
it
> depends on the way it's constructed ina particular language. >=20 > Reflexive also occurs in some natural languages in constructions that w=
ould
> be active voice in English. Some IE Examples: >=20 > "He is bored." > French "Il s'ennui" - He bores himself.
Yes, it occurs in Spanish too, and the pronoun is of the same origin and spelling (_se_ for 3rd person). But it's not only reflexive. I've heard it called 'pseudo-reflexive'. The French above I would translate 'He gets bored'. In Spanish (and probably in French?) you have to use a explicit reflexive free pronoun (i. e. not a clitic like _se_) to mark a truly reflexive verb in such ambiguous cases: =C9l se aburre a s=ED mismo. "He gets bored to/bores himself" where _s=ED_ is not the word for 'yes' :) but the free form of the reflexive 3rd person singular pronoun, and _mismo_ means 'same' and is used for emphasis. --Pablo Flores http://draseleq.conlang.org/pablo-david/