Re: Language "laws"?
From: | Jeff Jones <jsjonesmiami@...> |
Date: | Monday, October 11, 2004, 14:38 |
Henrik Theiling hat geschrieben:
> Hi!
> Yann Kiraly <yann_kiraly@...> writes:
> > Is it possible for a conlang to have k,t,d,g,b but no p?
> > And can it lack s,z,f,v,w and have th?
> It is all possible, because you invent it, anyway. :-) The
> question is whether it is realistic, and I'd say strictly no
> to the former and weakly no to the latter.But if you like
> it, why not?
Hey, wait a minute! 'Yemls has /g/, /k/, /d/, /t/, and /b/,
but no /p/. It's realistic enough for me! I would also like to
point out that ProtoCeltic must have lacked /p/, and the Irish
branch continued to lack /p/ until the middle ages, when Latin
words were borrowed.
Jeff
>
> **Henrik
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