Re: Genitive apposition (and Swedish questions)

Quoting myself <andjo@...>:

> Quoting "Douglas Koller, Latin & French" <latinfrench@...>:
>now.
> >
> > Oh here, allow me. Complete with funky verb endings, old spellings,
> > *and* genitive apposition (alas, I can't type in Fraktur), it's:
> >
> > Då de nu drogo österut, funno de en slätt uti Sinears land, och bodde der.
> >
> > My question is: why "funno"? Currently, it's "finna, fann, funnit",
> > which corresponds nicely to German's "finden, fand, gefunden". But
> > was it in the hoarfrost of time "finna, funn, funnit" (more akin to
> > English "find, found, found"). In other words, why not "fanno"?
>
> While
> ^^^^^
Should've been "because" (cf German _weil_ /vail/).

> the Germanic languages used to have different singular and plural
> stems
> for these verbs, but German jettisoned the pl ones centuries ago, while
> Swedish kept the things as long as it kept separate pl verbs at all (to the
> mid-20th C in writing - in speech I think it basically died during the 19th
> C).
I might add that Swedish does the same wrt subjunctives. The nowadays rarely-
used subjunctive of _finna_ är _funne_. Somewhat less uncommon is _funnes_,
the subjunctive of _finnas_, which besides being the passive of _finna_ finds
the time to be a deponent verb meaning "to exist".

                                                       Andreas