Re: OT: Diacricital marks [Re: Question about "do"]
| From: | Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, July 29, 2003, 18:01 |
|---|
En réponse à Mark J. Reed :
>That seems odd to me, since Latin already had a written form long before
>the differentiation? Or did people simply not equate writing and speech?
Until very late, writing was done exclusively in Latin. The vernaculars
were never considered worth writing in, until quite late.
Christophe Grandsire.
http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr
You need a straight mind to invent a twisted conlang.