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Re: Latin <h>

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Sunday, January 11, 2004, 11:31
Quoting Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>:

> Christophe Grandsire wrote: > > Actually, things are murkier than just "<h> became silent and that's it" > > :)) . Indeed, <h> was already silent in Vulgar Latin even before the > > Empire. So the original Latin <h> was lost already before split. But > sounds > > change, and /h/ reappeared in some Romance languages, to disappear again. > > In Spanish, it came from initial /f/ which turned into /h/ (except in > front > > of /w/, which explains Spanish <fuego> vs. <hablar> from Latin FOCUS and > > FABULARE, IIRC) > > And before /r/, hence Francia rather than *(H)rancia. > > And, for that matter, some dialects of Spanish use /h/ for {j}, so in > those dialects, /h/ has reappeared *twice*! :-) Seems as if they just > can't make up their minds about whether or not to have /h/ ;-)
On top of which some turn syllable-final /s/ to [h], on top of which some drop syllable-final [h]. A severe case of phonetic DPD, methinks! Andreas