Re: Latin <h>
| From: | Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, January 11, 2004, 12:33 |
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At 01:27 11.1.2004, Christophe Grandsire wrote:
> In Spanish, it came from initial /f/ which turned into /h/
>(except in front of /w/, which explains Spanish <fuego> vs.
><hablar> from Latin FOCUS and FABULARE, IIRC).
This is interesting as it is analogous to Japanese, where
historically *p\ changed to /h/, but retained a [p\]
allophone before *u (now /M/). I suspect we have to do
with an universal which prevents the delabialization
of [p\] before a fully labialized vowel. NB Japanese
/h/ has a [C] allophone before /i/ as well!
/BP 8^)
--
B.Philip Jonsson mailto:melrochX@melroch.se (delete X)
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~__
A h-ammen ledin i phith! \ \
__ ____ ____ _____________ ____ __ __ __ / /
\ \/___ \\__ \ /___ _____/\ \\__ \\ \ \ \\ \ / /
/ / / / / \ / /Melroch\ \_/ // / / // / / /
/ /___/ /_ / /\ \ / /'Aestan ~\_ // /__/ // /__/ /
/_________//_/ \_\/ /Eowine __ / / \___/\_\\___/\_\
Gwaedhvenn Angeliniel\ \______/ /a/ /_h-adar Merthol naun
~~~~~~~~~Kuinondil~~~\________/~~\__/~~~Noolendur~~~~~~
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"A coincidence, as we say in Middle-Earth" (JRR Tolkien)
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