Re: English Changes or what into Conlangs

Sally Caves wrote:
> Which leads me to wonder: what is the status of the "s" plural
> in Indo-European nouns and in Latin?  Where did the Old French speakers
> get it, and why did it become standard there as well?
From the accusative plural endings -as (feminine) and -os (masculine) -
I think both those vowels were long, but I'm not sure.  Anyways, in Late
Latin, fourth and fifth declinsions were absorbed by first and second,
so that the nouns were inflected thusly:

      1st        2nd        3rd
    S     P     S     P    S    P
Nom os    i     a     e?   (e)  es
Obl o     os    a     as   (e)  es

--
"Old linguists never die - they just come to voiceless stops." -
anonymous
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