Theiling Online    Sitemap    Conlang Mailing List HQ   

Re: English Changes or what into Conlangs

From:Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>
Date:Saturday, December 4, 1999, 23:31
Sally Caves wrote:
> Which leads me to wonder: what is the status of the "s" plural > in Indo-European nouns and in Latin? Where did the Old French speakers > get it, and why did it become standard there as well?
From the accusative plural endings -as (feminine) and -os (masculine) - I think both those vowels were long, but I'm not sure. Anyways, in Late Latin, fourth and fifth declinsions were absorbed by first and second, so that the nouns were inflected thusly: 1st 2nd 3rd S P S P S P Nom os i a e? (e) es Obl o os a as (e) es -- "Old linguists never die - they just come to voiceless stops." - anonymous http://members.tripod.com/~Nik_Taylor/X-Files http://members.tripod.com/~Nik_Taylor/Books.html ICQ: 18656696 AIM Screen-Name: NikTailor