Re: Fricativization as it happens

2009/1/26 Matthew Turnbull <ave.jor@...>:
> where do we have /ph/? we have <ph>=/f/, but /ph/?
Nowhere. Ollock Ackeop was asking whether the orthography was due to
standard transliteration of Greek terms or due to a sound change in
English whereby a previous pronunciation would better justify use of
'ph'.