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Re: Fricativization as it happens

From:Chris Wright <dhasenan@...>
Date:Monday, January 26, 2009, 17:26
2009/1/26 Matthew Turnbull <ave.jor@...>:
> where do we have /ph/? we have <ph>=/f/, but /ph/?
Nowhere. Ollock Ackeop was asking whether the orthography was due to standard transliteration of Greek terms or due to a sound change in English whereby a previous pronunciation would better justify use of 'ph'.