Re: SVO vs SOV and A lot of other questions
From: | Tristan McLeay <zsau@...> |
Date: | Monday, October 13, 2003, 14:35 |
On Mon, 13 Oct 2003, Akhilesh Pillalamarri wrote:
> Do any languages switch between the SVO and SOV in different cases,
> and is that valid. For example, my language {Aryezi} has an SVO
> structure, except when usuing pronouns, when it becomes an SOV.
> Ex) Se sanos gaoñ (I saw a cow)
> Se ganya sanos (I saw him) which can also work inversley
> as Gan mêz sanos (he saw me)
Well, Old English and German and similar languages certainly switch
between moving the verb to the second position in normal clauses and
having the verb in the final position in relative clauses, which is
similar, so I don't imagine there's anything wrong with it.
> There is also another problem in my language. I'm wondering what it is
> called when a verb from changes from something doing the action to the
> action being done to it, for example : I kill/I am being killed. I
> simply solved this by doing this : Se hash (I kill)/ Se hashya (I am
> being killed).
That's the passive. And your solution is fine.
> Also, from the verb "to like" I derived 2 adjectives, liked and
> likable. Is there such a major difference in these two, that it is
> reconmendable to make two adjective forms for all my words, one of
> them expressing "able?"
From my English-bias, I'd say yes, but that might just be a bias brought
on by English :)
--
Tristan <kesuari@...>
From there to here, from here to there, funny things are everywhere.
-- Dr. Seuss
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