| From: | Ray Brown <ray.brown@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, October 14, 2003, 17:57 |
On Monday, October 13, 2003, at 08:18 , Christophe Grandsire wrote:> En réponse à Akhilesh Pillalamarri : > > >> Do any languages switch between the SVO and SOV in different cases, and >> is that valid. For example, my language {Aryezi} has an SVO structure, >> except when usuing pronouns, when it becomes an SOV. >> Ex) Se sanos gaoñ (I saw a cow) >> Se ganya sanos (I saw him) which can also work inversley >> as Gan mêz sanos (he saw me) > > That's exactly what my native language, French, and most (all?) Romance > languages do.All - AFAIK. Unfortunately, I don't have to hand info about minor Romance langs like Ladin, Friulan, Romauntsch etc.; but from what I remember, they follow the common Romance system of having oblique forms of the personal pronouns (object & indirect object) as clitics attached to the verb. The normal position with finite verbs, except imperatives, is as proclitics (i.e. before the verb). Indeed, the similarity of Romancelngs in this respect, from Portugal in the west to Romania in the east, surely points to this being a common feature of Vulgar Latin of the (late) Roman Empire. The innovation in French is to have have the subject forms as proclitics also; this developed, of course, as some 50% or so of personal endings fell silent. The other major Romancelangs have not done this but IIRC proclitic subject forms have developed in Friulan and related Romance dialects/langs. ========================================================================= =================== Ray =============================================== http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown ray.brown@freeuk.com (home) raymond.brown@kingston-college.ac.uk (work) ===============================================
| Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...> |