Re: SVO vs SOV and A lot of other questions
From: | Joseph Fatula <fatula3@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, October 14, 2003, 10:19 |
From: "Jonathan Andrew Beagley" <jbeagley@...>
Subject: Re: SVO vs SOV and A lot of other questions
> Akhilesh Pillalamarri wrote:
>
> > Do any languages switch between the SVO and SOV in different cases,
> > and is that valid. For example, my language {Aryezi} has an SVO
> > structure, except when usuing pronouns, when it becomes an SOV.
> > Ex) Se sanos gaoñ (I saw a cow)
> > Se ganya sanos (I saw him) which can also work inversley
> > as Gan mêz sanos (he saw me)
>
> That's one of the great things about languages, you can pretty much do
> whatever you want. If you want, you could even make a language without
> verbs or nouns (as has been previously attempted)!
It just occurred to me that Spanish has a similar situation. When the
object of a verb is a noun, it is SVO, but when it is a pronoun, it is SOV.
Ex:
Mi padre no entiende español.
My father doesn't understand Spanish.
Mi padre no lo entiende.
My father doesn't it understand.