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Re: SVO vs SOV and A lot of other questions

From:Joseph Fatula <fatula3@...>
Date:Tuesday, October 14, 2003, 10:19
From: "Jonathan Andrew Beagley" <jbeagley@...>
Subject: Re: SVO vs SOV and A lot of other questions


> Akhilesh Pillalamarri wrote: > > > Do any languages switch between the SVO and SOV in different cases, > > and is that valid. For example, my language {Aryezi} has an SVO > > structure, except when usuing pronouns, when it becomes an SOV. > > Ex) Se sanos gaoñ (I saw a cow) > > Se ganya sanos (I saw him) which can also work inversley > > as Gan mêz sanos (he saw me) > > That's one of the great things about languages, you can pretty much do > whatever you want. If you want, you could even make a language without > verbs or nouns (as has been previously attempted)!
It just occurred to me that Spanish has a similar situation. When the object of a verb is a noun, it is SVO, but when it is a pronoun, it is SOV. Ex: Mi padre no entiende español. My father doesn't understand Spanish. Mi padre no lo entiende. My father doesn't it understand.