Re: SVO vs SOV and A lot of other questions
From: | Jonathan Andrew Beagley <jbeagley@...> |
Date: | Monday, October 13, 2003, 23:22 |
Akhilesh Pillalamarri wrote:
> Do any languages switch between the SVO and SOV in different cases,
> and is that valid. For example, my language {Aryezi} has an SVO
> structure, except when usuing pronouns, when it becomes an SOV.
> Ex) Se sanos gaoñ (I saw a cow)
> Se ganya sanos (I saw him) which can also work inversley
> as Gan mêz sanos (he saw me)
That's one of the great things about languages, you can pretty much do
whatever you want. If you want, you could even make a language without
verbs or nouns (as has been previously attempted)!
>
> There is also another problem in my language. I'm wondering what it is
> called when a verb from changes from something doing the action to the
> action being done to it, for example : I kill/I am being killed. I
> simply solved this by doing this : Se hash (I kill)/ Se hashya (I am
> being killed).
> Also, from the verb "to like" I derived 2 adjectives, liked and
> likable. Is there such a major difference in these two, that it is
> reconmendable to make two adjective forms for all my words, one of
> them expressing "able?"
> Khor Akhilesh
Just because they have two different meanings, there is no requirement
that Aryezi must distinguish the two meanings. :-D
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