Re: SVO vs SOV and A lot of other questions
From: | Christopher Wright <faceloran@...> |
Date: | Monday, October 13, 2003, 17:39 |
On Mon, 13 Oct 2003 07:11:14 -0700, Akhilesh Pillalamarri
<valardil@...> wrote:
>Do any languages switch between the SVO and SOV in different cases, and is
that valid.
No, it isn't valid. Spanish does this, and it's been taken to court a couple
of times in the last century over it.
>There is also another problem in my language. I'm wondering what it is
called when a verb from changes from something doing the action to the
action being done to it, for example : I kill/I am being killed. I simply
solved this by doing this : Se hash (I kill)/ Se hashya (I am being killed).
Mediopassive, as has been stated. How would you express "I am being killed
by him"?
>Also, from the verb "to like" I derived 2 adjectives, liked and likable. Is
there such a major difference in these two, that it is reconmendable to make
two adjective forms for all my words, one of them expressing "able?"
There's a definite difference between the two. "Liked" says something about
the status of a thing, and "likable" speaks of the likelyhood of that
status. Some languages omit this difference, I'll bet, and the clarity can
be achieved by saying (for instance) "He is liked" (mediopassive of "to
like") or "People don't like him, but he is liked/able".
>Khor Akhilesh
~wright