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Re: Merian H-4: Grammar and Phonology.

From:Joe Hill <joe@...>
Date:Wednesday, December 26, 2001, 8:50
----- Original Message -----
From: "Thomas R. Wier" <trwier@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Wednesday, December 26, 2001 1:55 AM
Subject: Re: Merian H-4: Grammar and Phonology.


> Quoting Joe Hill <joe@...>: > > > Yet another Conlang of My world :-) > > > > Merian H-4 > > > > Merian H-4 is a heavily inflected multi-cased system. It has a fairly > > complex phonology. > > > > Consonants > > > > Tt - Dental Stop > > Dd - Voiced Dental Stop > > Qq - Uvular Click > > Kk - Uvular Stop > > Gg -Voiced Uvular Stop > > Nn - Voiced Velar Nasal > > Ff - Bilabial Affricate > > Vv - Voiced Bilabial Affricate > > Ss - Velar Sibilant > > Zz - Voiced Velar Sibilant > > Cc - Velar Stop > > Xx - Velar Affricate > > Hh - Glottal Aspirate > > Mm - Voiced Bilabial Nasal > > (In the following, I'm assuming that you want your language > to look like natural languages. If you don't, then you can > ignore this.) > > Joe, one word about natural languages. Usually, when languages > acquire a distinction, they apply that distinction to a whole > class of sounds. So, for example, if you get affrication on > /p/ to get /p_f/, you'll also find affricates /t_T/ or /t_s/ > and /k_x/. So, let's look at your system: > > p t d c k g > f v x > h > (q) > m n > > This is a little anomalous in several ways. It's not weird for > a language to have a voiceless /p/ without a voiced /b/ (in > fact, that's the more unmarked system), but it is unusual to > have a voicing distinction in some places of articulation but > not others. Also, it's not unusual to have several manners of > articulation at bilabial, velar and uvular PoAs, but having > phonemes at these places implies their presence at a coronal > (i.e., dental or alveolar) PoA, which is the least marked PoA. > It's possible to get around this; labial PoA is only slightly > more marked than coronal, and yet some languages (Atkan Aleut, > Onondaga) lack these entirely. You do have two coronal phonemes, > but the ratio is a little skewed (but believable). Lastly, > uvular clicks are not really possible, unless by uvular you > mean where the back part of the tongue closes off the airflow. > > > Aa - Open Back Unrounded > > Uu - Closed Front Rounded > > Oo - Open Back Rounded > > Ee - Mid Front Rounded > > Ii - Mid Central Unrounded > > So, are you saying that vowel height is not a salient > distinguishing feature? I take it you mean the following > by the above: > > <a> = [A] > <u> = [y] > <o> = [Q] > <e> = [o"] > <i> = [@] or [E"] > > It's not strange that you would have [A] for /a/ and > [Q] for /o/, but it is a little odd that you would have > two *rounded* front vowels with no unrounded counterparts -- > the former generally imply the presence of the latter. > > > Cases > > > > Ergative - The Ergative case is the subject in Present tense > > transitive > > sentences. > > Absolutive - The Absolutive is the object in Present tense transitive > > sentences, and the subject in intransitive present tense ones. > > Pretergative - The Ergative, but in Past Tense > [...] > > Facudative - Indirect object in the uncertain future tense > > > > As you see, there is a different case for each tense, so I shall merely > > list the Present cases. > > It is not very unusual to have split ergativity along > tense lines, but usually this is restricted to an aorist/ > perfect having an ergative-absolutive system, and present/ > imperfect having a nominative absolutive system. If you > want to read up more about this, I would suggest getting > Dixon's _Ergativity_, which talks at considerable length > about ergativity splits: > > <http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0521448980/qid= > 1009315718/sr=8-1/ref=sr_8_1_1/107-8779639-9578927> > > (I didn't know Amazon now has photocopies of excerpts > on their page! That can be rather helpful information > when buying books.) > > Dixon's style is rather formal, and if you don't have much > linguistics background, I'd suggest something like _Describing > Morphosyntax_ by Thomas Payne, which is more approachable: > > <http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0521588057/qid= > 1009315867/sr=8-1/ref=sr_8_1_1/107-8779639-9578927> > > > (Eastern)- To signify if something is in the East > > (Western)- same as above, but in the west > > (Southern)- something is in the south > > (Northern)-Guess what. > > (Northwards Etc.) - If something is done towards specified direction. > > > > (Rightwards and Leftwards)- Same as above, but right and left. > > Usually, natural languages that grammaticalize directions do > so relative to the kind of terrain that the language is used > in. So, for example, the dialect of English spoken on the Great > Plains of North America (Iowa, Nebraska, Kansas, etc.) typically > will talk about the *north* side of the house, or the *south* > side of the house, because there aren't many recognizable > features on the plain to relate to otherwise. In California > and Alaska, on the other hand, native languages tend to have > deixis systems that refer to whether things are up river, or > down river or up the hill or down the hill, because that is > more accessible than North or South. Usually, though, languages > don't grammaticalize *both* cardinal and relative directions. > This would suggest that you should consider what kind of environment > the language developed in, and choose one of the two systems ( > either right/left or north/south).
Yeah, I'll use the North South one.
> > Number > > > > Again, all the work is done by the noun, there are numbers > > inflected for up to 10, and a plural number, for above or > > unspecified. > > Highly inflected, indeed. I can't think of a language that > grammaticalizes so many numbers, but as long as you can think > of a reasonable sociolinguistic motivation for it, I think it's > an interesting idea.
Indeed...of course my way is usually to make the language, then the culture seems to come out of that. :-)
> > Noun Letter Order > > CVCVC > > CVC > > qCV > > CVCVCV > > CVCV > > CVCVCV > > Do you mean 'licit syllables'?
Nope, lost you there...
> > The Cases and number are inflected after a glottal stop. > > What does this mean? Does it mean that there are no cases > usually, and they only appear after a glottal stop, or does > it mean that cases are normally autonomous units which > become cliticized after glottal stops at the end of nouns > they attach to?
It means they only appear after a glottal stop.
> > The Verb does not inflect. > > This is typologically normal; it's called 'dependent marking' > because the dependents (nouns, pronouns, prepositional phrases) > of the phrase's head (the verb) are what show agreement. > > > Letter Order is the same as nouns > > When you say letter order, do you mean letters (i.e., > orthography) or phonemes (sounds)? > > > The adjective merges with the noun, but has the same letter order > > What do you mean, "merges with the noun"? Do you mean that > the adjective becomes phonologically *bound* to the noun it > modifies, or that it's *written* that way? You seem to be > confusing two very separate issues -- the way something is > pronounced, and the way it is written. The one is rule- > based; the other is entirely arbitrary. >
It is both, the stress pattern is the main thing that changes though.
> > The adverb is the same, but with verbs. > > Same question applies here. > >

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Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>