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Re: Merian H-4: Grammar and Phonology.

From:Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
Date:Wednesday, December 26, 2001, 1:55
Quoting Joe Hill <joe@...>:

> Yet another Conlang of My world :-) > > Merian H-4 > > Merian H-4 is a heavily inflected multi-cased system. It has a fairly > complex phonology. > > Consonants > > Tt - Dental Stop > Dd - Voiced Dental Stop > Qq - Uvular Click > Kk - Uvular Stop > Gg -Voiced Uvular Stop > Nn - Voiced Velar Nasal > Ff - Bilabial Affricate > Vv - Voiced Bilabial Affricate > Ss - Velar Sibilant > Zz - Voiced Velar Sibilant > Cc - Velar Stop > Xx - Velar Affricate > Hh - Glottal Aspirate > Mm - Voiced Bilabial Nasal
(In the following, I'm assuming that you want your language to look like natural languages. If you don't, then you can ignore this.) Joe, one word about natural languages. Usually, when languages acquire a distinction, they apply that distinction to a whole class of sounds. So, for example, if you get affrication on /p/ to get /p_f/, you'll also find affricates /t_T/ or /t_s/ and /k_x/. So, let's look at your system: p t d c k g f v x h (q) m n This is a little anomalous in several ways. It's not weird for a language to have a voiceless /p/ without a voiced /b/ (in fact, that's the more unmarked system), but it is unusual to have a voicing distinction in some places of articulation but not others. Also, it's not unusual to have several manners of articulation at bilabial, velar and uvular PoAs, but having phonemes at these places implies their presence at a coronal (i.e., dental or alveolar) PoA, which is the least marked PoA. It's possible to get around this; labial PoA is only slightly more marked than coronal, and yet some languages (Atkan Aleut, Onondaga) lack these entirely. You do have two coronal phonemes, but the ratio is a little skewed (but believable). Lastly, uvular clicks are not really possible, unless by uvular you mean where the back part of the tongue closes off the airflow.
> Aa - Open Back Unrounded > Uu - Closed Front Rounded > Oo - Open Back Rounded > Ee - Mid Front Rounded > Ii - Mid Central Unrounded
So, are you saying that vowel height is not a salient distinguishing feature? I take it you mean the following by the above: <a> = [A] <u> = [y] <o> = [Q] <e> = [o"] <i> = [@] or [E"] It's not strange that you would have [A] for /a/ and [Q] for /o/, but it is a little odd that you would have two *rounded* front vowels with no unrounded counterparts -- the former generally imply the presence of the latter.
> Cases > > Ergative - The Ergative case is the subject in Present tense > transitive > sentences. > Absolutive - The Absolutive is the object in Present tense transitive > sentences, and the subject in intransitive present tense ones. > Pretergative - The Ergative, but in Past Tense
[...]
> Facudative - Indirect object in the uncertain future tense > > As you see, there is a different case for each tense, so I shall merely > list the Present cases.
It is not very unusual to have split ergativity along tense lines, but usually this is restricted to an aorist/ perfect having an ergative-absolutive system, and present/ imperfect having a nominative absolutive system. If you want to read up more about this, I would suggest getting Dixon's _Ergativity_, which talks at considerable length about ergativity splits: <http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0521448980/qid= 1009315718/sr=8-1/ref=sr_8_1_1/107-8779639-9578927> (I didn't know Amazon now has photocopies of excerpts on their page! That can be rather helpful information when buying books.) Dixon's style is rather formal, and if you don't have much linguistics background, I'd suggest something like _Describing Morphosyntax_ by Thomas Payne, which is more approachable: <http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0521588057/qid= 1009315867/sr=8-1/ref=sr_8_1_1/107-8779639-9578927>
> (Eastern)- To signify if something is in the East > (Western)- same as above, but in the west > (Southern)- something is in the south > (Northern)-Guess what. > (Northwards Etc.) - If something is done towards specified direction. > > (Rightwards and Leftwards)- Same as above, but right and left.
Usually, natural languages that grammaticalize directions do so relative to the kind of terrain that the language is used in. So, for example, the dialect of English spoken on the Great Plains of North America (Iowa, Nebraska, Kansas, etc.) typically will talk about the *north* side of the house, or the *south* side of the house, because there aren't many recognizable features on the plain to relate to otherwise. In California and Alaska, on the other hand, native languages tend to have deixis systems that refer to whether things are up river, or down river or up the hill or down the hill, because that is more accessible than North or South. Usually, though, languages don't grammaticalize *both* cardinal and relative directions. This would suggest that you should consider what kind of environment the language developed in, and choose one of the two systems ( either right/left or north/south).
> Number > > Again, all the work is done by the noun, there are numbers > inflected for up to 10, and a plural number, for above or > unspecified.
Highly inflected, indeed. I can't think of a language that grammaticalizes so many numbers, but as long as you can think of a reasonable sociolinguistic motivation for it, I think it's an interesting idea.
> Noun Letter Order > CVCVC > CVC > qCV > CVCVCV > CVCV > CVCVCV
Do you mean 'licit syllables'?
> The Cases and number are inflected after a glottal stop.
What does this mean? Does it mean that there are no cases usually, and they only appear after a glottal stop, or does it mean that cases are normally autonomous units which become cliticized after glottal stops at the end of nouns they attach to?
> The Verb does not inflect.
This is typologically normal; it's called 'dependent marking' because the dependents (nouns, pronouns, prepositional phrases) of the phrase's head (the verb) are what show agreement.
> Letter Order is the same as nouns
When you say letter order, do you mean letters (i.e., orthography) or phonemes (sounds)?
> The adjective merges with the noun, but has the same letter order
What do you mean, "merges with the noun"? Do you mean that the adjective becomes phonologically *bound* to the noun it modifies, or that it's *written* that way? You seem to be confusing two very separate issues -- the way something is pronounced, and the way it is written. The one is rule- based; the other is entirely arbitrary.
> The adverb is the same, but with verbs.
Same question applies here. ===================================================================== Thomas Wier <trwier@...> <http://home.uchicago.edu/~trwier> "...koruphàs hetéras hetére:isi prosápto:n / Dept. of Linguistics mú:tho:n mè: teléein atrapòn mían..." University of Chicago "To join together diverse peaks of thought / 1010 E. 59th Street and not complete one road that has no turn" Chicago, IL 60637 Empedocles, _On Nature_, on speculative thinkers

Replies

Joe Hill <joe@...>
Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>