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Re: A problem solved: Arabisms in Spanish

From:Carlos Thompson <chlewey@...>
Date:Friday, February 19, 1999, 2:07
John Cowan wrote:

> True enough. However, Spanish grew a secondary /h/ as a result of a > phoneme split: Latin /f/ became sometimes /f/, sometimes /h/, probably > through an intermediate stage of an unvoiced bilabial fricative. > In Old Spanish, "f" sometimes represents /f/, sometimes /h/. > Eventually, a spelling reform took hold, and this /h/ became written "h=
> which persists even though the phoneme has disappeared. > > For example, Latin "fabulare" > OSp "fablar" [haBlar] > "hablar" > still [haBlar] > "hablar" [aBlar].
In the Boyac=E1 dialect of Colombia the change is going on. Many people = form this region, mainly country dwellers, pronounce no /f/ but /h/, even in cluste= rs that are not found in other Spanish dialects like: Francia /hransja/. In Boya= c=E1 like most of Andean dialects, <j> is pronounced /h/. As a matter of curiosity, in Boyac=E1 is common the use of "sumerc=E9" fr= om "vuesa merced" (your mercy) using the most modern "su" =3D your. -- Carlos