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Re: CHAT: History of «ir»

From:Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Date:Tuesday, July 3, 2007, 22:24
Thanks!

As for andar, once either the m became n or the b became d, the other
was likely to follow suit via assimilation.  Not that that explains
the original change...

On 7/3/07, Edgard Bikelis <bikelis@...> wrote:
> Hi! Quoting just my memory... and I just know portuguese, but it's close > enough. > > 'ir' > > present: vou < vado, -ere > imperfect: ia < eo, -ire > past perfect: fui < sum, esse ! > > 'andar' < ambulo, -are. How that -d- appeared is beyond me! > > Edgard. > > On 7/3/07, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote: > > > > This should probably be tagged differently, but I don't know with > > what. The question concerns the historical development of a natlang. > > Specifically Spanish. How did the verb «ir» develop? The usual Latin > > root for "go" seems to have become «andar», while the everyday word > > comes elsewhence and arrives in an odd set of forms. Was there a > > merger, like with English "go" and "wend"? Did the present tense come > > from some verb which, had its infinitive survived, would now be > > *«var»? > > > > This question occurred to me while I was trying to > > remember/reconstruct the polite imperative for «dar», since the two > > verbs have several parallel forms. (Though *«daya» is not one of > > them). The other thing that occurred to me is that > > _The_Dar_Imperative_ would be a good name for a science fiction > > thriller. And/or a rock band. > > > > -- > > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> > > >
-- Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>

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Edgard Bikelis <bikelis@...>