Re: CHAT: History of «ir»
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, July 3, 2007, 22:24 |
Thanks!
As for andar, once either the m became n or the b became d, the other
was likely to follow suit via assimilation. Not that that explains
the original change...
On 7/3/07, Edgard Bikelis <bikelis@...> wrote:
> Hi! Quoting just my memory... and I just know portuguese, but it's close
> enough.
>
> 'ir'
>
> present: vou < vado, -ere
> imperfect: ia < eo, -ire
> past perfect: fui < sum, esse !
>
> 'andar' < ambulo, -are. How that -d- appeared is beyond me!
>
> Edgard.
>
> On 7/3/07, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote:
> >
> > This should probably be tagged differently, but I don't know with
> > what. The question concerns the historical development of a natlang.
> > Specifically Spanish. How did the verb «ir» develop? The usual Latin
> > root for "go" seems to have become «andar», while the everyday word
> > comes elsewhence and arrives in an odd set of forms. Was there a
> > merger, like with English "go" and "wend"? Did the present tense come
> > from some verb which, had its infinitive survived, would now be
> > *«var»?
> >
> > This question occurred to me while I was trying to
> > remember/reconstruct the polite imperative for «dar», since the two
> > verbs have several parallel forms. (Though *«daya» is not one of
> > them). The other thing that occurred to me is that
> > _The_Dar_Imperative_ would be a good name for a science fiction
> > thriller. And/or a rock band.
> >
> > --
> > Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
> >
>
--
Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
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