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Re: French spelling scheme

From:Roger Mills <romilly@...>
Date:Monday, May 7, 2001, 22:56
Christophe Grandsire wrote:

>En réponse à Roger Mills <romilly@...>: > >> >> Your [ajDr=] strikes me as more in line with US pronunciation (i.e. >> those >> who don't say [i:Dr=]). I had an English teacher in high-school, a >> born-and-bred New Englander of distinguished family, who said [IDr=]; >> he >> also pronounced "drama" as [dr&m@(r)]. Quite unique; he was easy to >> imitate! >> > >Well, in France people are actually taught one of both pronunciations in
>variation, depending on the teacher (that's to say, some will be taught
>while others [i:Dr=]). I've seen the same phenomenon in Spanish, where I
>first taught that "ll" was consistently pronounced [j] (by my half-Spanish >Spanish teacher). When I arrived in High School and took Spanish classes
>students coming from other schools, I discovered that quite a few of them
>been taught to pronounce "ll" as [l_j]. I kept on saying [j] though, and no >teacher ever said that I was mispronouncing :) .>
That's certainly true of Spanish, where [l_j] is Castillian (sometimes or at least formerly considered the "standard"), [j] almost everyone else. Majority rule! English [ajDr=], 50 or so years ago at least, used to be considered Eastern (New York/Boston)-- as well as cultured, educated. In the rest of the country (Mid-west especially) it was [iDr=], and [ajDr=] was considered an affectation. That's less true nowadays, probably because of the generalized speech we've been hearing on TV for a long time. Very few people IME have [iDr=] ~ [ajD=r] in free variation, unlike "economics", where we might say it with initial /i/ in one sentence, /E/ in the next......


Robert Hailman <robert@...>[iD=r] ~ [ajD=r]? (was: Re: French spelling scheme)
Barry Garcia <barry_garcia@...>
BP Jonsson <bpj@...>