Re: THEORY: Why more than two grammatical relations?

All of your statements seem to make sense to me.

Nevertheless, yes, I am asking about syntax, not about semantics.  True, the
underlying motive (or one of the chief motives) for anything morphological or
syntactic is going to be, in large part, semantic or pragmatic.  Grammatical
relations are probably in general grammaticizations of semantic or pragmatic
entities; in particular "Subject" is grammaticized "Topic".  But it's not the
_same_ as "Topic".  "Topic" is a pragmatic category while "Subject" is a
syntactic or grammatical one.  _All_ "Topics" _must_ be definite in _every_
language; in some languages all "Subjects" must be definite, but in
many "Subjects" are allowed to be indefinite.

For help understanding what I'm asking, please read
< http://www.chrisdb.me.uk/wiki/doku.php?id=grammatical_relations >
.

Also see
< http://www.spinnoff.com/zbb/viewtopic.php?
p=555985&highlight=two+grammatical+relations#555985 >
.

I hope I'm not asking too much effort of you.
Thanks for any effort you make, plus the effort you've already made.