Re: Chinese Dialect Question
| From: | Joe <joe@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, October 13, 2003, 6:00 |
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----- Original Message -----
From: "Jonathan Andrew Beagley" <jbeagley@...>
To: <CONLANG@...>
Sent: Monday, October 13, 2003 2:02 AM
Subject: Re: Chinese Dialect Question
> Ah, now I see. Thanks to all of you who answered my question. :-D So [d]
> is not different than [t] only in the aspect of voicing, but also
> because it is lenis. Therefore, it is possible to have a lenis [t].
Correct?
>
Yes, indeed. Most languages do not aspirate [t], at least to the same
degree English does. Indian languages, such as Sanskrit have both aspirated
and unaspirated consonants, for every stop, and a lot of stops - [t] [c]
[t'] [p] [k] [d]
[J\][d'][b][g][t_h][c_h][t'_h][p_h][k_h][d_h][J\_h][d'_h][b_h][g_h].