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Re: Chinese Dialect Question

From:Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...>
Date:Friday, October 3, 2003, 16:22
At 19:01 2.10.2003, Garth Wallace wrote:
>JS Bangs wrote: >>Mark J. Reed sikyal: >> >>Furthermore, most languages have exactly one rhotic > >Is this a universal, or are there some languages with more than one?
Spanish distinguishes /4/ aznd /r/, and some Occitan dialects distinguish /r/ and /R/. Lhasa Tibetan has /r\/ and /s`/ as a voiced~voiceless oppo- sition pair. There may be other that I don't know of. FWIW some Swedish have [r] and [R] as conditoned allophones. At 19:53 2.10.2003, JS Bangs wrote:
>I don't think we can count this as "two kinds of 'r'". The distinction >between [4] and [r] is one of length in Spanish, phonemically /r/ and >/r:/. Their distribution attests to this--like geminates in most >languages, they do not contrast initially or finally. And as a geminate >/r:/ should not be considered a fully distinct phoneme. We do not say that >a language with /k g k: g:/ has four velar stops, do we?
But these are the only non-geminate~geminate pair in Spanish! /BP 8^) -- B.Philip Jonsson mailto:melrochX@melroch.se (delete X) ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~__ A h-ammen ledin i phith! \ \ __ ____ ____ _____________ ____ __ __ __ / / \ \/___ \\__ \ /___ _____/\ \\__ \\ \ \ \\ \ / / / / / / / \ / /Melroch\ \_/ // / / // / / / / /___/ /_ / /\ \ / /Gaestan ~\_ // /__/ // /__/ / /_________//_/ \_\/ /Eowine __ / / \___/\_\\___/\_\ Gwaedhvenn Angeliniel\ \______/ /a/ /_h-adar Merthol naun ~~~~~~~~~Kuinondil~~~\________/~~\__/~~~Noolendur~~~~~~ || Lenda lenda pellalenda pellatellenda kuivie aiya! || "A coincidence, as we say in Middle-Earth" (JRR Tolkien)