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Re: OT: code-switching

From:Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
Date:Tuesday, January 6, 2004, 21:22
MJR> I remain convinced that the Spanish /a/ is the same vowel I have
MJR> in my personal (non-RP) pronunciation of "father"; based on the
MJR> above site, it lies somewhere between [a] and [A]. and could be rendered
MJR> [a-], but I'm not convinced it's closer to [a] than [A]; maybe it's
MJR> [A+].  At any rate, that is the vowel I use when speaking Spanish,[...]
MJR> German, French, . . .

CG> If you really use that vowel when speaking French, any French person would
CG> unmistakenly hear you're a foreigner. Until 20 years ago, French had a
CG> *phonemic* opposition between /a/ and /A/, and the one that survived is
CG> definitely /a/ pronounced [a] (very clearly a front vowel).

Ok, let me take that back.  The vowel I have in "father" is my
starting point for all "furrin" <a>s, but I do adjust based on what
I hear from native speakers.  I've been told I have an authentic
accent in Spanish, Russian, and Japanese; on the other hand, no-one
has ever made that claim about my French. :)

Still, on the basis of a few "oh-la-la"s and the like I would say that my
French <a> is closer to [a] than [A], although it seems to show up
nasalized most often in the words I use, which somewhat masks the
distinction.

-Mark