Re: OT: code-switching
From: | David Barrow <davidab@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, January 6, 2004, 8:46 |
Mark J. Reed wrote:
>On Sun, Jan 04, 2004 at 09:38:26PM -0500, David Barrow wrote:
>
>
>>Mark J. Reed wrote:
>>
>>
>>>I suspect that if you, say, went to Spain,
>>>you would find that when they talk about Canada they don't say ['k&n@d@],
>>>but rather [kanada].
>>>
>>>
>>[kana'da] more like
>>
>>
>
>Well, if you're going to get nit-picky, it'd actually be [kana'Da]. :)
>
I was just clarifying stress like in the English version , but point
taken :-)
>
>Although I still don't get why it's [a] and not [A]. I thought the
>Spanish "a" = Latin long "a" = "a" in English "father" = [A], while
>[a] was the "o" in the native pronunciation of "Boston", or of
>"pop" in Chicago.
>
>-Mark
>
>
Spanish 'a' is not like RP 'a' in father which is [A:]
I don't know enough about US accents to comment
but have a look here for sound reference
http://www.ling.hf.ntnu.no/ipa/full/ipachart_vowels.html
[a] first bottom left, [A] second from bottom right
David
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