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Re: OT: code-switching

From:David Barrow <davidab@...>
Date:Tuesday, January 6, 2004, 8:46
Mark J. Reed wrote:

>On Sun, Jan 04, 2004 at 09:38:26PM -0500, David Barrow wrote: > > >>Mark J. Reed wrote: >> >> >>>I suspect that if you, say, went to Spain, >>>you would find that when they talk about Canada they don't say ['k&n@d@], >>>but rather [kanada]. >>> >>> >>[kana'da] more like >> >> > >Well, if you're going to get nit-picky, it'd actually be [kana'Da]. :) >
I was just clarifying stress like in the English version , but point taken :-)
> >Although I still don't get why it's [a] and not [A]. I thought the >Spanish "a" = Latin long "a" = "a" in English "father" = [A], while >[a] was the "o" in the native pronunciation of "Boston", or of >"pop" in Chicago. > >-Mark > >
Spanish 'a' is not like RP 'a' in father which is [A:] I don't know enough about US accents to comment but have a look here for sound reference http://www.ling.hf.ntnu.no/ipa/full/ipachart_vowels.html [a] first bottom left, [A] second from bottom right David

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Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>