Quoting "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...>:
> On Sun, Jan 04, 2004 at 09:38:26PM -0500, David Barrow wrote:
> > Mark J. Reed wrote:
> > >I suspect that if you, say, went to Spain,
> > >you would find that when they talk about Canada they don't say ['k&n@d@],
> > >but rather [kanada].
> >
> > [kana'da] more like
>
> Well, if you're going to get nit-picky, it'd actually be [kana'Da]. :)
Why not [ka'naDa]? Why the final stress?
> Although I still don't get why it's [a] and not [A]. I thought the
> Spanish "a" = Latin long "a" = "a" in English "father" = [A], while
> [a] was the "o" in the native pronunciation of "Boston", or of
> "pop" in Chicago.
If it's any consolation to you, a Latin textbook I leafed thru for a while
claimed that Classical long and short "a" was [a:] and [a] respectively. But I
rather wonder how one'd tell pronunciation 2k years ago with that precision.
Ray?
Andreas