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Re: OT: code-switching

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Tuesday, January 6, 2004, 9:54
Quoting "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...>:

> On Sun, Jan 04, 2004 at 09:38:26PM -0500, David Barrow wrote: > > Mark J. Reed wrote: > > >I suspect that if you, say, went to Spain, > > >you would find that when they talk about Canada they don't say ['k&n@d@], > > >but rather [kanada]. > > > > [kana'da] more like > > Well, if you're going to get nit-picky, it'd actually be [kana'Da]. :)
Why not [ka'naDa]? Why the final stress?
> Although I still don't get why it's [a] and not [A]. I thought the > Spanish "a" = Latin long "a" = "a" in English "father" = [A], while > [a] was the "o" in the native pronunciation of "Boston", or of > "pop" in Chicago.
If it's any consolation to you, a Latin textbook I leafed thru for a while claimed that Classical long and short "a" was [a:] and [a] respectively. But I rather wonder how one'd tell pronunciation 2k years ago with that precision. Ray? Andreas

Replies

Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
David Barrow <davidab@...>
Costentin Cornomorus <elemtilas@...>