Re: Fluid-S pivot in Old Albic

With the most recent change in the Vbazi grammar (more recent that the post
in which I described it), it seems simple to represent the two meanings of
"The man threw the ball and fell"

That change is that the verb can no longer inflect for the dative argument
as principal argument and the dative argument always goes after the verb.
That way, the verb can only agree for the object if there is one or the
subject if not.

So, the verbs agrees in person, number, and case(Nom/Acc) with its
absolutive argument.

This way it is easy to distinct "The man threw the ball and [the man] fell"
and "The child threw the ball and [the ball] fell" by using nominative or
accusative on "to fall"


jaljl jehi jylnjyzbeinjai ai jylmizdjai
jal -jl   jehi  jyl –njyzbein-jai       ai  jyl –mizd-jai
ball-ACC  Man   PAST-throw    3rd/S/ACC and PAST-fall-3rd/S/ACC
The man threw the ball and (the ball) fell

jaljl jehi jylnjyzbeinjai yi jylmizdja
jal -jl   jehi  jyl –njyzbein-jai       yi  jyl –mizd-ja
ball-ACC  Man   PAST-throw    3rd/S/ACC and PAST-fall-3rd/S/NOM
The man threw the ball and (the man) fell

(The conjonction "and" between two verbs is not the same depending if the
two verbs have the same ending or not, a third one is used when it is
between two nouns.)

It would be the only possibility for an intransitive verb to take an
accusative ending, it depends of the first mark used in the sentence.

Does this work?

- Max

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