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Re: Latin /j/ etc. (was: Latin <h>)

From:Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...>
Date:Wednesday, January 14, 2004, 18:41
At 21:08 12.1.2004, Ray Brown wrote:

>Not Sardinian - but 'twas so in Romanian. Old French had [dZ]. One must >remember that intervocalic /j/ was always geminate in Latin, i.e. [jj]. >It was a change from [jj] --> [dj], and confusions in spelling, {z} ~ {di} >~ {i} show the change going on in the 2nd & 3rd cents. CE.
What do you think of the hypothesis that the spelling MAGIS represented /majjis/ even in classical times? /BP 8^) -- B.Philip Jonsson mailto:melrochX@melroch.se (delete X) ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~__ A h-ammen ledin i phith! \ \ __ ____ ____ _____________ ____ __ __ __ / / \ \/___ \\__ \ /___ _____/\ \\__ \\ \ \ \\ \ / / / / / / / \ / /Melroch\ \_/ // / / // / / / / /___/ /_ / /\ \ / /'Aestan ~\_ // /__/ // /__/ / /_________//_/ \_\/ /Eowine __ / / \___/\_\\___/\_\ Gwaedhvenn Angeliniel\ \______/ /a/ /_h-adar Merthol naun ~~~~~~~~~Kuinondil~~~\________/~~\__/~~~Noolendur~~~~~~ || Lenda lenda pellalenda pellatellenda kuivie aiya! || "A coincidence, as we say in Middle-Earth" (JRR Tolkien)

Replies

Tristan McLeay <zsau@...>
Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>