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Re: Language naming terminology

From:Carlos Thompson <chlewey@...>
Date:Tuesday, September 22, 1998, 11:47
-----Mensaje original-----
De: Pablo Flores <fflores@...>
Fecha: Martes 22 de Septiembre de 1998 01:08
Asunto: Re: Language naming terminology


>Carlos Eugenio Thompson Pinzon wrote: >>In the Americas things were somehow different. Most European cultures >>displaced the original ones and the countries were founded after the >>dessendens fo Europeans. >>I don't know where Peru or Chile came from. >I think I read somewhere that Chile comes from Araucano (or some other >Indian language) _chiri_, 'cold'. And Peru from _biru_ (another native >word, but I don't know what it means).
Well, the use of European languages and conventions wasn't a strait jacket... :-) In Colombia, many towns and provinces are named after Indi= an names (Bogot=E1, Cali, Cundinamarca, Tolima, etc.) Many others after Span= ish names (Medell=EDn, Magdalena) or other European names (Antioquia, Florenc= ia). (I know Antiokia ain't Europe, but European Culture related). Many times Mixed: Santaf=E9 de Bogot=E1.
>>the Viceroi(...) of Nueva Granada >You mean Virreinato, right?
Right. One of the four Spanish _Virreinatos_ in the Americas: Nueva Espa= =F1a (Mexico), Nueva Granada (Colombia), Per=FA (Peru) and R=EDo de la Plata (Argentina). I know the English word for _virrey_ is Vicerois (from French) as used in India. How should I refer to the place a Vicerois rules? Viceroisdom?
>>the Northamerican Union, who had no name of their own, took the name >>of the continent: The United States of America, with the adjective >American >>_stoled_ from all we other Americans. > >_Stolen_, yes. It's a shame that the rest of the people in America (the >continent) cannot say that we are 'American' or that we have, say, an >American character (as there is European character, or Asian character, =
for
>example).
I put "stolen" in italics because I knew it wasn't a purpousse of imperialism or something like that. As Nik Taylor points, English descendents where "Americans" long before revolution as Spaniards descendants where "americanos" by the same time. Just happend that the U= S Revolution preceded the other American Revolution. When someone once sai= d "America for the Americans" had the wide American concept in mind, but ma= ny believed US Imperialism over its _backyard_ begun with that phrase. This can show how politics, and supremacy make the international names of Countries. Just as Roma could change the name of Judea to Palestina. But let's stop chating about politics and supremacy. Just language.
>You didn't mention Brazil and Argentina.
Well, I didn't wanted to be exaustive.
>--Pablo Flores
-- Carlos Th