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Re: THEORY: language and the brain [Interesting article]

From:Ian Spackman <ianspackman@...>
Date:Wednesday, July 2, 2003, 10:40
At 10:34 02/07/03, Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>
wrote:
>En réponse à John Leland : > >>On Japanese having "r but no l" while other Asian languages have only "l" >>my observation (and my impression is that more qualified experts agree) is >>that this distinction is largely a matter of the way the languages are >>romanized. Listening to Japanese pronounciation the sound romanized >>as r is more like l at least in many contexts. > >Not to me. The Japanese r is just an alveolar flap (and the Japanese people >I've met agree with me) which is no different from the Spanish single 'r' >between two vowels. Since they don't have a l, they replace it with the >alveolar flap (the closest thing to an alveolar lateral they have), but >that doesn't make it any l-like. And I listen daily to enough Japanese >(between songs and anime) to have quite an informed opinion on that.
I think this is more to do with English than with Japanese. I've heard English speakers describing the Japanese r as "exactly halfway between r and l", and there is something to this to my ear, but this is surely because English r is just an approximant. I sometimes wonder how speaker of those English dialects which have the alveolar flap as allophones of /d/ and /t/ hear it. Ian

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Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>