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Re: plausible sound change?

From:Roger Mills <romilly@...>
Date:Monday, June 11, 2001, 3:17
Aidan Grey wrote:

> I'm also wondering if a common welsh derivation >could work in reverse: > > in plosive clusters, the second element is >fricativized, then the first element assimilates to >it, and then vocalizes, forming diphthongs. > > frex: latin nocte > nokT > noxT > noeT /nojT/ >approximately. > > So, could i develop into a palatal fricative, and >then cause fricativization by assimilation? In welsh, >i: often > /ij/, with the /j/ becoming /D/. If this is >plausible, then I've got my solution: > > i:, e:, i all > ij in tonic syll > j > pal fric before cons > assimilation of fric > loss of pal fric > > itir 'between' < OI itir > > ijtir > > ijTir > > iTir <ithir> > > Does this seem plausible now?
Much moreso. But you seem to have omitted a step (perhaps irrelevant): *'itir > i:tir > ijtir ijtir > içtir (that should be c-cedilla; yes?) (maybe even an intermediate çt > ht ??) içtir/ihtir > iTir <ithir> The step detailling ijt > içt would be relevant only if, perhaps, some dialect took off from that point and retained or further modified the form, maybe > **iStir etc. My general feeling is that the "odder" the sound change, the more steps are required to show how it gets from there to here.....