Re: plausible sound change?
|From:||Roger Mills <romilly@...>|
|Date:||Monday, June 11, 2001, 3:17|
Aidan Grey wrote:
> I'm also wondering if a common welsh derivation
>could work in reverse:
> in plosive clusters, the second element is
>fricativized, then the first element assimilates to
>it, and then vocalizes, forming diphthongs.
> frex: latin nocte > nokT > noxT > noeT /nojT/
> So, could i develop into a palatal fricative, and
>then cause fricativization by assimilation? In welsh,
>i: often > /ij/, with the /j/ becoming /D/. If this is
>plausible, then I've got my solution:
> i:, e:, i all > ij in tonic syll
> j > pal fric before cons
> assimilation of fric
> loss of pal fric
> itir 'between' < OI itir
> > ijtir
> > ijTir
> > iTir <ithir>
> Does this seem plausible now?Much moreso. But you seem to have omitted a step (perhaps irrelevant):
*'itir > i:tir > ijtir
ijtir > içtir (that should be c-cedilla; yes?)
(maybe even an intermediate çt > ht ??)
içtir/ihtir > iTir <ithir>
The step detailling ijt > içt would be relevant only if, perhaps, some
dialect took off from that point and retained or further modified the form,
maybe > **iStir etc.
My general feeling is that the "odder" the sound change, the more steps are
required to show how it gets from there to here.....